Why did the villain have to be gay?
What was the point of making King Candy effeminate? Would he have been any less effective a villain had he been straight?
shareWhat was the point of making King Candy effeminate? Would he have been any less effective a villain had he been straight?
shareCould you please explain how you came to the conclusion that he's gay? And if he is, why Ralph isn't? Cause he's not shown to be in a relationship with a woman either. Wait, maybe Ralph's a pedophile. Hm yeah, makes sense as there's about as much evidence for that.
share[deleted]
Yeah I didn't read the character as gay at all, the voice was obviously a nod to the guy who did Mad Hatter and a bunch of other "insane" characters. It kind of a high pitched, jewish thing, not a gay lisp thing at all.
Plus it was Alan Turdyk, he is great at voices, I didn't even know it was him until the end credits. If he wanted to convey a gay villain, it would have been WAYYYY stronger and 100% obvious.
"Nobody knows anybody, not that well..." - Miller's Crossing
That's what I thought while watching James Bond, but it's hollywood. Shrug it off and enjoy the movie. I did :)
share[deleted]
I wouldn't call it gay nor effeminate. It was dandyism. Foppish, snobbish, delicate, with more than a tinge of madness. All of which were once qualities people ridiculed extensively among certain groups of people. Guess who they were? Nobility. :P
share