MovieChat Forums > All Good Things (2010) Discussion > Why did the father tell David that Katie...

Why did the father tell David that Katie would never be one of them?

posted 8 years ago by HarveyManfredSinJohn
1 reply | jump to latest

They were nouveau-riche Jews. Katie was a gentile.

He was making it sound like his family were upper-class aristocrats and Katie was common trash.

I find it very ironic, considering how often Jews speak of being the victims of anti-Semitic bigotry, that many of them have looked down on gentiles as being beneath them. You can't have it both ways. Either you're the victim or you're the oppressor. You can't be a bigot and yet still, hypocritically, claim you're the one being oppressed.

So which is it? Are Jews the oppressors or the oppressed? 

Last Seen Films: Silence - 10/10, La La Land - 10/10, Hacksaw Ridge - 8/10

[–] chilone (18041) 7 years ago

I get what you're trying to do here but it won't work. Your second sentence sums it up and it has nothing to do with them being Jews. Simply, they were the old money, upper crust elite. Her and her family were middle class, blue collar workers. The blue bloods don't ever accept them.