implied incest??


During the father-daughter argument scene, after pops caught Hartley and Starr talking, Hartley said something about no man being good enough for her but him (pops). Pops had a very weird look on his face and immediately changed his attitude towards Hartely. Did this mean that there was something else going on with the two of them out there in the wilderness?

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Simply put. the script inserted there a bit of two-cent freudian nonsense, along the lines of the Frankfurt school, the authoritarian personality, etc. In doing so the story struck a false note. At that time no young girl would dare to say such thing to her father or even enterntain the thought.
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The scriptwriter put his own thoughts into the mouth of the farmer's daughter, incurring in a blatant anachronism. It's business as usual in Hollywood, pushing the agenda in devious ways. If this film is going to be remade they will make Elsa something even more outrageous , like "Dad, you are a religious freak, a hypocrite and a deranged psycho. Do you want to rape me. don't you?"
These films should be taken with a grain of salt, be aware their makers had their own agenda, sometimes explicit and others implicit.

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No, it is not implied. People today just look for that kind of thing everywhere, and think they've found it when it's just their imagination.

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