MovieChat Forums > The Man in the High Castle (2015) Discussion > useless eater; did the Nazis really kill...

useless eater; did the Nazis really kill them?


also, I have heard that in Germany, because of this policy, there are fewer persons with disabilities, genetic diseases, handicappeds, etc than the rest of the world, is it true at all?

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Yes, and yes. It's selective breeding.

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Aktion t4. Handicapped people were the first and final group Nazis mass murdered. Handicapped people were murdered by Nazis even after their surrender.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aktion_T4

http://www.amazon.com/Save-Send-Delete-Danusha-Goska/dp/1846949866

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Also, remember in S1E1 when Joe got a flat, then asked the cop what the ashes were falling from the sky. I think it was something like a nearby insane asylum.

I wonder if the considered them useless eaters as well, in actual history.

Brevity is the soul of wit.

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Yes. That's the whole point. They cremate them. I am actually surprised you guys didn't get it.

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Yes. That's the whole point. They cremate them. I am actually surprised you guys didn't get it.

"We guys" actually did 'get it', thanks. You responded to my post where I described ash falling from the sky and noted where it came from.

The intent of the OP was to wonder to what extent Nazis went in reality versus what is depicted this science-fiction television show (after all, Nazi crematories for the insane did not actually exist on US soil).

Someone asking if this same kind of act happened on German occupied land during the real WWII era is a valid question.

Note: This history is now at least 70 years old.

Brevity is the soul of wit.

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If they killed the handicapped, why wouldn't they kill the insane? That is the "logical" conclusion of their supremacist thinking. Yes, they did have breeding programs and killed those with "inferior" genetics. And yes, the result of selective breeding is getting less undesired traits. Don't get snappy, I'm being helpful!! Lol... I never studied history, that's why it seems weird people don't know that when I did.

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If they killed the handicapped, why wouldn't they kill the insane? That is the "logical" conclusion of their supremacist thinking.

Yeah. What was I thinking -- it should have made perfect sense to anyone if they gave it any reasonable amount of thought. Silly questions ...

Brevity is the soul of wit.

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In our reality they did, (as did other nations)

The program was ended in 41 because of opposition and protests by members of the public and Nazi Party members.

"Damn you Weatherby Savings and loan, I spit at you!"

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They did (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aktion_T4), but it was quite different to what we see in this (fictional) series.

The victims of the general program were institutionalized patients or inmates, not people taken from private residences. The program was strictly kept under wraps, there never was a respective law published, parents and other relatives were not informed, instead given fabricated natural causes of death.

Still, rumors developed quickly and some protests from parents and clerics became known. In 1941 it was decided that the program made too many waves and it was in part abandoned. The killings continued though at a smaller scale.

Regarding this fictional series: One could argue that by 1962, the general population was brainwashed enough to accept an official policy forcing them to surrender their sick or disabled family members. I doubt though that this would have ever worked. (And, as seen, it would put a kind of pressure on the physicians that would make their work practically impossible.)

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