"No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon."
Christine, like most people in America to-day, chose Mammon, and was rewarded accordingly.
That's the truth. It doesn't matter that she wasn't "that bad." She was bad enough. She loved money, she loved impressing people, and she was not charitable.
Christine will be meeting her boss down there soon enough, I am sure.
I believe in Hell in the Biblical sense -- but this is a movie.
Even if Christine was Hell bound for the exact reasons the poster mentioned, God does not foreshorten our lives to three days or less to feed the demons or appease sorcerers and witches -- but gives us every opportunity to discover truth and find redemption.
Even so, it was a movie. Sheer entertainment. A thriller. We get to see, acted out, the 'what ifs'. See fears depicted as reality.
> Even if Christine was Hell bound for the exact reasons the poster > mentioned, God does not foreshorten our lives to three days or less > to feed the demons or appease sorcerers and witches -- but gives us > every opportunity to discover truth and find redemption.
Huh? I don't understand this theology at all. So you are saying that God lets us get dragged to Hell when we die, but NEVER NEVER NEVER lets us die young?
Christine died because she fled from Clay when he tried to return the button to her, thereby falling in front of the railroad tracks before an onrushing train. In other words, she died BECAUSE she chose to put her faith in sorcerers and witches, and place herself in the power of demons. The prophesy was self-fulfilling.
As for redemptive opportunities, I leave that to God. I don't assume that this is impossible even after death. Seems to me that Raimi left things open for a sequel, with the symbol of redemption on the floor of the Great Room, and the hints that it is a gateway to the Spirit World.
I have not said anything about what I believe. I am saying I have never heard that Jewish and/or Christian theology teaches that God would never allow an evil creature to bring about an early death. I hear Hitler caused a few people to die young, and God did not stop him.
Hence, if this fictional demon causes an early death, it would not fly in the face of orthodox Christian theology as some are claiming(regardless of whether I believe in God, or in Christianity, or in demons, or even in this particular fictional demon).
For evil to prevail in this world, is for good men to stand, watch and do nothing. Meaning if we as good, God's serving and God fearing people to stand by and watch evil demonic people to commit heinous crimes and not stand up to them. God himself can only do so much. Stop blaming God for the evil in this world! The culprit is Satan, the devil!
The biggest trick the Devil ever pulled, is to convince the world that he doesn't exist.
wow, you watched the movie and that's all you got out of it? the movie was Christine's hallucination as she falls deeper into bulimia and eventually dies because of it.
> wow, you watched the movie and that's all you got out of it? the movie > was Christine's hallucination as she falls deeper into bulimia and > eventually dies because of it.
A rather poor theory, IMHO ... especially if "that's all you got out of it". - theory mis-states the facts of the film. - theory mis-states the diagnostic criteria of bulimia, or states them so broadly that they become meaningless. Are we all bulimic now? - theory, considered by itself and without more to give the story a deeper meaning, is hostile to the suspension of disbelief which is essential to the enjoyment of fiction. "She's crazy and its not really happening", purely by itself, is not a deeper meaning - it is merely the theory negating the story or (if the theory is correct) the story negating itself.
But I don't necessarily deny that Christine might be (in some sense) insane. She is the victim of visions (whether demon-induced or not) that others cannot see -- that might be called "hallucinations" -- and which may contain deceptions and false information.
But there has to be more than that. Otherwise its just the story negating itself. And I don't think that merely making vague associations to "bulimia" counts as more.
The theory also seems a poor fit with Raimi's stated goal - to scare the average viewer by forcing him/her to identify with Christine and her troubles. But perhaps the theory is proof that he succeeded, because the theory can be seen as a reaction that seeks to reassure the viewer that the film is NOT about bad things happening to "people like me" (ie. "nice", but still selfish and greedy, as virtually all of us are to some extent); but only about bad things happening to people with a particularly bizarre and unusual psychological condition.
Raimi has said many times in interviews that "sin through greed" is one of the themes of the film. Seems to me that that, together with all the other surface elements of the film, better explains the film than the "bulimia" theory.
assuming you watched the video. didn't you think it was strange that nobody really reacted to her bloody nose and when she stood up after getting puked on at the funeral none of the puke was on her; not on her face nor her clothes. i remember watching the movie and found it incredibly awkward nobody was concerned that she just hosed her boss full of blood. i think the biggest signal that the film's real meaning was when she revealed her fatter self photo which she's disgusted of. from that picture every little thing in the movie connects. you cannot the deny the little clues like the constant vomiting, hair loss, and things being shoved down Christine's throat as signs pointing towards a struggle with bulimia. i think theres too much bulimia related coincidences to deny that Raimi incorporated this subplot. so you can take the movie at face value that it's a curse/demon film, or a film about a girl struggling with bulimia. i take the latter, especially with the awkwardness/inconsistencies of some scenes.
> didn't you think it was strange that nobody really reacted to her bloody nose
They DID react. I agree their reaction was not appropriate, which may suggest that what they saw was different from what we (and she) saw. But this is merely part of a theme which we already know - that a demon is tormenting her by messing with her perceptions. I see no connection to bulemia.
> when she stood up after getting puked on at the funeral none of the puke > was on her
Yes. I noticed. I also noticed that when she thinks she sees Old Lady Ganush in the road, it turned out to actually be an old man. I also recall when she thought she saw Ganush fingernails on Stu. A demon is tormenting her by messing with her perceptions. It has nothing to do with bulemia.
> the biggest signal that the film's real meaning was when she revealed her > fatter self photo which she's disgusted of.
By this standard ALL women are bulemic.
She also is ashamed of her accent, and is trying to change it. She is also ashamed of her mom, and does not visit her. There's a theme, all right, but no real connection to bulemia.
> you cannot the deny the little clues like the constant vomiting
Huh? She never vomits! So there is no connection to bulemia. Having someone else vomit on you, or even having hallucinations of someone else vomiting on you, is NOT a symptom of bulemia. So yes, I can certainly deny that "little clue".
> hair loss,
Getting your hair pulled out in a fight is NOT a symptom of bulemia. Pulling your own hair out in a hallucinatory fight is not a symptom of bulemia. Anyway, in spite of the hair-pulling scenes, she remains, to the end of the film, a healthy-looking girl, or normal healthy weight, with a full head of hair, which would hardly be true if she were losing her hair from malnutrition.
> and things being shoved down Christine's throat as signs pointing > towards a struggle with bulimia.
I can certainly deny it, since I have a better theory which better fits the evidence. Christine sins through greed, and greed is the avenue through which the demons enter her and corrupt her soul.
> i think theres too much bulimia related coincidences
You are creating the coincidences, by playing loose games of association and pretending that very different things are actually the same.
-She is listening to an addiction tape at the beginning. -She stops by the sweet store and looks at the cakes like a drug addict.
These are the two huge ones that you missed. She definitely has an issue with food be it bulimia or some other type of eating disorder. The movie pretty much slaps you in the face with it at the beginning.
-She is listening to an addiction tape at the beginning.
Incorrect. She is listening to a diction/pronunciation tape. (You turned "diction" into "addiction" - how did that happen?). She is trying to improve her pronunciation to rid herself of her "farm girl" country accent; and thereby improve her social standing. It connects generally with the theme of ambition or "greed" but it has nothing to do with any specific eating disorder, like Bulimia.
-She stops by the sweet store and looks at the cakes like a drug addict.
She does indeed look at the cakes. She is tempted by the cakes. But she also wants to improve her social standing and leave the former "fat farm girl" behind. She resists the temptation to eat the cakes (so in this case at least, not much "like a drug addict").
These are the two huge ones that you missed. She definitely has an issue with food be it bulimia or some other type of eating disorder. The movie pretty much slaps you in the face with it at the beginning.
She has an issue with food. Like most people. The problem is when you jump to Bulimia; or any other specific eating disorder.
> Where did Matthew get his references or documentation for this?
Um ... he is quoting Jesus. Jesus is giving an oral speech. If we go by ancient sources, then Matthew is a disciple of Jesus, with more or less direct access to Jesus' words and teachings.
But that's only what the ancient sources say. Nowadays, many prefer to discredit the ancient sources in favor of modern speculative theories whose origins can be traced to the 17th century.
Which is fine. No-one need trust sources merely because they are ancient. But it is dishonest of you to demand a source. The mists of time have swallowed up the ancient past, and you know perfectly well you will refuse to credit any ancient documentary source he might provide, which has been fortunate enough to survive the millenia.
>Um ... he is quoting Jesus. Jesus is giving an oral speech
Well, mention some contemporary historians of Jesus.
>But it is dishonest of you to demand a source
Other religions, like Islam, has it's originator documented by history. I am not saying this implies that this religion is true, but Muhammad's life is profoundly documented compared to Jesus'.
Do you think Matthew's writing sounds reasonable? On what grounds?
> >Um ... he is quoting Jesus. Jesus is giving an oral speech > Well, mention some contemporary historians of Jesus.
In this context (the quote provided) the contemporary historical source is: Matthew.
Matthew is recording Jesus's teachings, and Matthew is, in this context, plausibly a direct witness to the teachings he records.
> >But it is dishonest of you to demand a source > Other religions, like Islam, has it's originator documented by history.
What's your point? I never denied that Mohammed was documented by history.
> I am not saying this implies that this religion is true, but Muhammad's life > is profoundly documented compared to Jesus'.
I don't understand the relevance of comparison. Mohammed was a military and political leader, whose military and political exploits are a bit harder for what you call "history" to ignore. He is also about 570 years more recent than Jesus. And, as I mentioned, time has a tendency to swallow up the past (which inevitably leaves modern speculators more room to speculate that the surviving sources are unreliable ... if that's what they want to do).
But the context here is not military and political exploits (of which Jesus had virtually none) but rather religious and moral teachings, such as the quote from Matthew provided. Anyone inclined to speculate that this quote from Matthew in fact originated with someone other than Jesus, and was invented after Jesus' death, is equally free to make similar speculations regarding the alleged religious teachings of Mohammed as recorded in the Quran, which were (at the very least) not compiled until after Mohammed's death.
But I am aware of no reason to doubt the accuracy of Mohammed's reported teachings either (meaning, I see no reason to doubt that Mohammed really did preach such things), even if the teachings were compiled after his death. At least, I am certainly aware of no better historical source of Mohammed's teachings.
> Do you think Matthew's writing sounds reasonable? On what grounds?
I think that this quote from Matthew plausibly is an accurate quote from Jesus. Is that what you are disputing?
My ground is that Matthew is (according to ancient sources as distinct from modern theories) the earliest available source for Jesus' words, and Matthew reports that Jesus said a certain thing. And I have never seen a convincing argument otherwise that was actually based on ancient evidence (as distinct from modern speculation).
Apart from that, I am not sure what you are arguing.
You are clearly interested in this topic. Then you also must be aware that Matthew wasn't Jesus contemporary?
I am not going to be as judgmental at you, but after reading what you wrote, I am inclined to believe that you are a person who wrestled with the truth and announced that you finally won.
Ra75 wrote: > You are clearly interested in this topic. > Then you also must be aware that Matthew wasn't Jesus contemporary?
I am aware of the theories, originating in the 17th century, that say that Matthew (meaning the guy who wrote the gospel) was not Jesus' contemporary. I find these theories unconvincing, and believe these theories have more to do with the needs of Enlightenment-era secular ideology than any any improvement in methods of historical science, or to any improvement in the application of objective historical logic to the few surviving ancient documents and limited historical evidence.
The oldest sources say that Matthew was Jesus' contemporary, and I consider this a reasonably good fit with the internal evidence of Matthew itself and the other synoptic gospels. And if we choose not to trust those sources, the best we could say is that we do not know if Matthew was Jesus' contemporary or not.
I am aware of the arguments to the contrary. I think if you examine these arguments, you will find they all depend, to an enormous extent on unproven premises. And if you examine the origin of these premises, you will find they were, in large part, invented in the 17th century or later, by thinkers who found that the best way to achieve academic respectability and praise was to serve - not necessarily historical truth - but rather the ideological needs of the modern secular state and modern secular society; which, then as today, was waging ideological war against the forces of religion.
My point being not that modern secular society is necessarily bad; nor even that it does not deserve to win the war against the forces of religion. My point is merely there is no reason to assume that our modern ideological needs (however worthy) should necessarily coincide with 2000-year old historical realities. In this case, I think it does not coincide. I think a fair assessment of the historical evidence would conclude that the author of the Gospel of Matthew was probably a contemporary of Jesus.
Similarly, the Gospel of John is a document that (unlike Matthew) actually makes a direct internal claim to have been written by a contemporary of Jesus. Should we believe what the document says about its own authorship? Or trust the Enlightenment-era and modern-era theories that place it circa 120 a.d. or later, long after any contemporary of Jesus could have plausibly written it? My position if that you want to trust the modern argument more than the ancient source, you'd better have a pretty darned convincing argument. I don't see one here. Indeed, I feel it is shocking how weak and speculative the arguments for late dating are.
> I am not going to be as judgmental at you, but after reading what you > wrote, I am inclined to believe that you are a person who wrestled with > the truth and announced that you finally won.
You are assuming, of course, that you know what the "truth" is. The question is, can you support your position by arguments squarely based on ancient sources, and without assuming unproven premises? (Please be warned: the phrase "most modern scholars believe x" is not an ancient source; it is merely modern society citing its own ideological predilections, and assuming that historical reality coincides with their current ideological needs - when there is no reason in the world why it should).
You are, of course, a man of your time. So naturally, you believe the things that most people of your era believe. So if Bart Ehrman or some similar authority tells you that most modern scholars think that Matthew was written in 80 a.d. or thereabouts, (about 50 years after Jesus' death) you assume this must be true. The question is: can you transcend these assumptions and actually think about the matter critically?
Perhaps, because you doubt all things connected to traditional Christianity, you consider yourself a freethinker and a skeptic. But you are a bit late for that. Christianity, or at least the traditional version of it, is not the dominant ideology of your era. Are you able to be truly independent-minded? Are you able to doubt what "everybody knows"? Are you able to doubt the doctrines of your OWN era? After all, if you merely doubt the doctrines of a prior era ... where's the independent thinking? Anyone can do that, and almost everyone does.
To keep it short: for all practical purposes he was not a contemporary according to modern scholars. To refine the statement (and avoid abuse of statistics), I would say that it is implausible and not likely. The difference between ancient sources and modern scholars is that the latter provide evidence. Of course it is just theories. But these ancient sources, do they provide the same evidence? If so, is it true that some other "prophet" split the moon in half and rode up heaven with a winged horse (I would say flew) and negotiated with his creator about the amount of daily prayers with Abraham as a middle man? I would say that this is bollocks, even though the sources are ancient.
>You are assuming, of course, that you know what the "truth" is
No, I am interested in evidence, or lack thereof. The truth is not subjective.
>The question is, can you support your position by arguments squarely based on ancient sources, and without assuming unproven premises?
First of all, proof is a strong word. Any position which is unproved (e.g. conveyed by ancient sources) does basically not require evidence to refute.
>My position if that you want to trust the modern argument more than the ancient source, you'd better have a pretty darned convincing argument
What are you talking about? Do you find that sources stating that some person walked on water, cured the terminally ill and made water into wine and rose from the dead is plausible, reliable and conveys the truth? Maybe it is just me, but I would not say that you would need a convincing argument to trust moderns sources instead of the ancient.
>...you consider yourself a freethinker and a skeptic.. Well, I do not know exactly what a freethinker is. But at least I do not consider the world to be dichotomised into believers in the Judea Christian God/atheists. I do not know anything about you, but I get a hunch that you operate withing the framework of the bible and assume truth in everything it encompasses. If this is true, do you think that this is an obstruction for _you_ free thinking?
Ra75 wrote: > To keep it short: for all practical purposes he was not a contemporary > according to modern scholars.
Dude. I asked for evidence. "According to modern scholars" is not evidence. The truth is that modern scholars disagree as to whether Matthew was a contemporary of Jesus, unless you arbitrarily disqualify anyone who disagrees with your preferred position as not "modern" or not a "scholar" because you don't like their views. There's no point counting heads, because the truth is not a popularity contest. If your preferred School of Academics is right, then they must have good reasons. What are those reasons?
You came on pretty strong there, telling my that, if I know anything, I "know" that Matthew was not Jesus's contemporary. You must think there are pretty strong reasons to believe that Matthew was not Jesus' contemporary. What are they?
> To refine the statement (and avoid abuse of statistics), I would say that > it is implausible and not likely.
Now you're softening your views a bit. But you still have not presented any actual reasons for your opinion.
> The difference between ancient sources and modern scholars is that the > latter provide evidence.
Dude. We are discussing Ancient History. Without ancient sources, there IS no evidence, and the modern scholar has nothing to work with. So what is the Modern Scholar's argument, based on ancient sources, that Matthew was not Jesus' contemporary?
Are you asking me to assume that the so-called "modern scholar" is right, merely because he is (in some sense) "modern"? Stop praising the "modern scholar" for his modernity and telling me how much evidence he has. Show me what that evidence is.
> Of course it is just theories.
So ... you're just surrendering? Even I could do better than that, and I don't even agree with the theories.
> If so, is it true that some other "prophet" split the moon in half and > rode up heaven with a winged horse (I would say flew) and negotiated > with his creator about the amount of daily prayers with Abraham as a > middle man? I would say that this is bollocks, even though the sources > are ancient.
Now you're changing the subject. We weren't discussing the Old Testament. We were discussing Matthew. And we were not discussing whether the narrative portions of Matthew were reliable. We were discussing whether Matthew was a contemporary of Jesus.
I happen to think the writings of Joseph Smith are a load of bollocks. This does not compel me to think that the writings of Joseph Smith were written 50 years after Joseph Smith's death by someone other than Joseph Smith.
I'm not going to let you change the subject. You told me you "know" that Matthew was not Jesus' contemporary. How do you know this?
> No, I am interested in evidence, or lack thereof.
You sure could have fooled me. If you are so interested in evidence, then why have you presented none whatsoever in support of your claim that Matthew was not Jesus' contemporary. By the way, that claim is a positive claim. Don't try to support it on the basis of "lack of evidence". That, in logic, is known as "the argument from ignorance", and it is a logical fallacy.
Of course, you could just admit that you do not know whether or not Matthew was Jesus' contemporary. That would be fair, if "lack of evidence" is the basis of your position.
(However, be aware their IS ancient evidence that Matthew was Jesus' contemporary. This evidence is not absolutely strong or completely airtight. However, some counter-evidence must at least be attempted before anyone claims that the probabilities go the other way).
> What are you talking about? Do you find that sources stating that > some person walked on water, cured the terminally ill and made water > into wine and rose from the dead is plausible, reliable and conveys > the truth? Maybe it is just me, but I would not say that you would > need a convincing argument to trust moderns sources instead of the > ancient.
Don't change the subject. If you think that some of the events that Matthew reports are untrue and unreliable, then that is a different subject. The psychic Sylvia Browne claimed that Amanda Berry was dead. She was wrong. Her "evidence" was pure fiction. It does not follow that Sylvia Brown was not a contemporary of Amanda Berry. She was and is.
What am I talking about? It's called the "historical method". It recognizes that the mists of time swallow up and distort the past, and therefore relies on the oldest and most original sources that can be found. Hence, if you do 19th century history, you use the best contemporary 19th century sources you can find. If you do Medieval history, you use contemporary medieval sources, to the extent that you can find them (these will be scarcer). And if you do ancient Palestinian history, you use ancient Palestinian sources to the extent that you can find them (these will be rare indeed). And if you cannot find original sources (as is often the case the further you go back in time) you use the oldest, least derivative sources you can find.
What's the alternative? To make stuff up? Wait 2000 years and then invent fictions pleasing to the sensibilities of the modern age? The only way we can know about the past is that some contemporary wrote stuff down, and his writings got preserved and passed down over the centuries. Or perhaps, at a stretch, an oral tradition or two could have survived accurately for a generation or two after the death of the first-hand observer before being written down and passed on in some fashion; but even in this case we are dealing with extremely ancient documents.
If these so-called "modern scholars", that you worship as the High Priests of Modern Truth, don't use "ancient sources" (which you despise as unreliable), then what do they use? Their psychic powers? Their mystic tea leaves?
Or (if you don't trust the ancient sources) you could just admit you don't know. But you did not merely say "I don't know." You have made a positive claim about ancient history, and declared it to be a Truth so obvious that even I must know it. You have claimed that Matthew (I assume you mean the author of the gospel) was NOT a contemporary of Jesus. That is a positive claim about ancient history. Please use the historical method, and support your claim with reference to ancient sources.
You may want to read "Redating the New Testament" by J.A.T. Robinson. He may interest you because he does not appear to accept the supernatural. However, all of his arguments are squarely based on ancient sources. Hence, is is not only "modern" and a "scholar", but (judging by his methods) a real historian as well. However, the High Priests of Modernity you worship routinely ignore him, because they do not like his conclusions (which they have never refuted, because they cannot).
You talk about making stuff up? Hahahahaha! Best one ever. The guy believes in a 2000 year old book and say that the alternative is "making things up". :D
Science is not to make stuff up. Its to test and prove the "stuff". The bible is all made up and written at a time when humans believed in dragons and witches. And it is never tested and proven. It just is. Its like me saying i can jump 50 meters, but you have to take my word for it. No one can come check it, and the world will write it in as a record. That would make for a very messed up world with a lot of non truths and pure fiction.
"If only you could see what i've seen with your eyes"
no she went to hell because she was cursed by a gypsy. She walked backwards on to a train line . the curse could have been lifted had she given the button to the gypsy
"sticks and stones may brake my bones but whips , chains, leather and tight pvc excite me"
I agree with you, tj19. However, it was an interesting debate while it lasted, and as far as I know didn't break any rules of IMDb. We the readers, are free to skip to another topic should this one bore us.