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Question about Daniels being 'killed' by the Suliban (spoilers)


I have a question from season 1 where Daniels supposedly gets "killed" by the Suliban only to appear in the season finale. Why exactly wasn't he killed? I never understood that. The only theory I can think of is that after he was killed, another "time agent" from the future went back and prevented his death. However, if this is the case, then Archer shouldn't have remembered him being killed at all. Another idea is that perhaps he was killed, and his corpse then appeared in the 31st century, where using their advanced medicine they were able to revive him. However, that doesn't explain it showing him being 'shattered' like a piece of glass. Any other ideas?

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This confused me too but I can only guess that they don't work in such a linear way as we think. They somehow changed the timelines so he didn't die. But of course time travel stories rarely make sense.

Think how many Trek episodes deal with sending people back in time and especially the 1940s? It would be funny if Kirk ran into Archer and Quark all at the same time but of course they weren't existing in the 1940s of the same timeline (if that makes any sense) so they wouldn't.

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I wondered the same thing, and honestly, I have nothing to contribute. There's no logic when dealing with time travel so I try not to think on it too hard. Makes my head hurt.

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Didn't quite understand it either. Better to just roll with the punches and not ask too many questions. By the way, what was up with Daniels' hair? His hair looked like a plastic toupee in one episode. Yeah, better not to ask too many questions. 😄

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