MovieChat Forums > The Bonfire of the Vanities (1990) Discussion > why was the tape admissible in the End??...

why was the tape admissible in the End?? (Spoiler)


His lawyer said it was NOT. Is it because the same tape was also on the wire he wore??

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Hanks lied to the judge, technically it wasn't admissable.

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New York's wiretapping law is a "one-party consent" law. New York makes it a crime to record or eavesdrop on an in-person or telephone conversation unless one party to the conversation consents.

Originally, the recording was done without the knowledge or consent, of either Maria or Sherman...and thus, illegal and inadmissible.

However, since Sherman lied and said he recorded it...it became legal and admissible.

So no, it was not the same tape from the wire. When Sherman heard that tape and Maria was careful not to incriminate herself, he chucked that tape and instead used the tape from the previous wiretap sent to him anonymously by Fallow.




Whose idea was it for the word "Lisp" to have an "S" in it?

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