Question Regarding a Dream transition
I want to figure out if my statement is correct and see some opinions here on the board. I've written this for an essay:
Other times the separation between the dream world and the diegetic reality are less distinguishable for example there is a moment later in the film where Guido and his wife (Luisa) go to sleep after an argument. Fellini then cuts to action mid-day, a typical Hollywood ellipses. It isn’t until the shift in character behavior (Luisa embracing Claudia, Guido’s mistress) and the pace in Nino Rota’s famous melody that we realize that Fellini had not cut to action mid-day but rather to action mid-dream.
Now that I look at it, it may have actually been a cut to mid day and then a cut to a day dream mid scene, but then it may just be a dream altogether?
Any thoughts?
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