I'm a bit confused about the Babylon scene.
I finished the first act last night and I plan to finish the second act tonight. However, it strikes me as odd that he appears to be portraying Babylon as the victim in this situation. Historically, it was Darius the Mede and not Cyrus the Great that conquered Babylon. Griffith is going by the Biblical history in which Cyrus the Great conquered Babylon. However, Babylon became a symbol of evil within the Bible. It seems quite odd that he would take the Biblical telling and change it so that Babylon are the sympathetic victims and not the villains. Biblically Belshazzar profained God's sacred utensils by drinking from them and his fate was written out on a wall as if by the hand of God Himself.
Was it believed historically in 1916 that Cyrus defeated Babylon or was he taking certain liberties with the Biblical presentation of what happened? It seems rather odd that he would contradict the Bible considering his portrayal of Christ within the film. They say that winners write the history books and while there are conflicting histories, I believe the Bible when it says that Cyrus defeated Belshazzar and brought and end to the city of Babylon. Of course, this is personal belief and has no bearing on the film itself.
Long story short, why is he going by the Biblical tale in which Babylon is a great evil and then portraying them as the victims?