why did he have to pay the Goldmans?

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yes to above and some how, OJ was liable for the murders at his wife's house. I still do not get that, but he has welched on paying that money to the Goldman's anyways

He was found "not guilty" only in the criminal case. A civil case is different. It doesn't have to be a unanimous decision, for example. The jury in the civil suit found him liable for the wrongful death of Goldman.

and OJ is liable to pay Fred "man of Gold" Goldman a ton of cash so Fred Goldman can buy some mustache wax

just because he was found not guilty by a farce of a criminal trial does not mean he was exempt from being sued in a civil trial. if he had been found guilty they would have sued him too. fred goldman will do anything legally in his power to avenge his son. i hope oj dies behind bars.

The main difference is that in a criminal case, the defendant has to be found guilty "beyond reasonable doubt", while in a civil case, the person on trial simply has to be found to be probably responsible.

So it is not at all unusual for the same case to produce a not guilty verdict in a criminal trial, but to produce a liable verdict in a civil trial, and this is exactly what happened with OJ.


I cried because I had no shoes until I met a man with no sole. ~ Ancient Disco Proverb

I don't believe that Fred Goldman gave 2 craps about his son, but he does love money.

he spent a lot to cover his sons tracks after he was dead

OJs money was to replenish that

Mongo like candy!