You say there is anti-gay bias in these studies but you don´t mention the bias that also exists to protect the sensitivities of the gay community. Many studies automatically exclude men who perform homosexual acts on boys as being homosexuals because the child is not an adult. These very same studies, however do not do the same for male heterosexuals who abuse underage girls. Heterosexuals somehow never lose their "identity" of being straight when they abuse children but the opposite happens for homosexuals. This is a glaring inconsistency which appears to happen because of politically sensitive reasons.
Look at this example from one researcher: "Although nonspecialists correctly use the word pedophile, that is, to be without regard for whether male or female children are targeted, the colloquial use of the word homosexual refers to homosexual teleiophiles and not homosexual pedophiles." (A homosexual teleiophile is someone that is only attracted to adult men). This researcher took it upon himself to define what the colloquial definition of a homosexual is, without citing any sources, based on his own biased opinion.
Can you see the problem with the definition here? According to this researcher, a homosexual man is no longer identified as homosexual if he has an attraction to a 15 year old boy. I am sorry but if you define yourself as homosexual and you decide to broaden your interest to underage males, you don´t suddenly lose your attraction to the same sex. This is an absurd notion.
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